NSG 5003 Mid-term Exam

Sample Answer for NSG 5003 Mid-term Exam Included After Question

What causes the rapid change in the resting membrane
potential to initiate an action potential?

Question 1 options:

Potassium
gates open and potassium rushes into the cell, changing the membrane potential
from negative to positive

Sodium
gates open and sodium rushes into the cell, changing the membrane potential
from negative to positive.

Sodium
gates close, allowing potassium into the cell to change the membrane potential
from positive to negative.

Potassium
gates close, allowing sodium into the cell to change the membrane potential
from positive to negative.

Question 2

What is a consequence of leakage of lysosomal enzymes during
chemical injury?

Question 2 options:

Enzymatic
digestion of the nucleus and nucleolus occurs, halting deoxyribonucleic acid
(DNA) synthesis.

Influx
of potassium ions into the mitochondria occurs, halting the adenosine
triphosphate (ATP) production.

Edema
of the Golgi body occurs, preventing the transport of proteins out of the cell.

Shift
of calcium out of the plasma membrane occurs, destroying the cytoskeleton.

Question 3

In hypoxic injury, sodium enters the cell and causes
swelling because:

Question 3 options:

The
cell membrane permeability increases for sodium during periods of hypoxia.

Adenosine
triphosphate (ATP) is insufficient to maintain the pump that keeps sodium out
of the cell.

The lactic
acid produced by the hypoxia binds with sodium in the cell.

Sodium
cannot be transported to the cell membrane during hypoxia.

Question 4

What mechanisms occur in the liver cells as a result of
lipid accumulation?

Question 4 options:

Obstruction
of the common bile duct, preventing the flow of bile from the liver to the
gallbladder

Increased
synthesis of triglycerides from fatty acids and decreased synthesis of
apoproteins

Increased
binding of lipids with apoproteins to form lipoproteins

Increased
conversion of fatty acids to phospholipids

Question 5

Which solution is best to use when cleaning a wound that is
healing by 101. During an Immunoglobulin E (IgE)-mediated hypersensitivity
reaction, the degranulation of mast cells is a result of which receptor action?

Question 5 options:

Histamine
bound to H2

Chemotactic
factor binding to the receptor

Epinephrine
bound to mast cells

Acetylcholine
bound to mast cells

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Question 6

What is the mechanism that results in type II
hypersensitivity reactions?

Question 6 options:

Antibodies
coat mast cells by binding to receptors that signal its degranulation, followed
by a discharge of preformed mediators.

Antibodies
bind to soluble antigens that were released into body fluids, and the immune
complexes are then deposited in the tissues.

Cytotoxic
T (Tc) lymphocytes or lymphokine-producing helper T 1 (Th1) cells directly
attack and destroy cellular targets.

Antibodies
bind to the antigens on the cell surface.

Question 7

Type III hypersensitivity reactions are a result of which of
the following?

Question 7 options:

Antibodies
coating mast cells by binding to receptors that signal its degranulation,
followed by the discharge of preformed mediators

Antibodies
binding to soluble antigens that were released into body fluids and the immune
complexes being deposited in the tissues

Cytotoxic
T (Tc) cells or lymphokine-producing helper T 1 (Th1) cells directly attacking
and destroying cellular targets

Antibodies
binding to the antigen on the cell surface

Question 8

Tissue damage caused by the deposition of circulating immune
complexes containing an antibody against the host deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)
is the cause of which disease?

Question 8 options:

Hemolytic
anemia

Pernicious
anemia

Systemic
lupus erythematosus

Myasthenia
gravis

Question 9

Why does tissue damage occur in acute rejection after organ
transplantation?

Question 9 options:

Th1
cells release cytokines that activate infiltrating macrophages, and cytotoxic T
(Tc) cells directly attack the endothelial cells of the transplanted tissue.

Circulating
immune complexes are deposited in the endothelial cells of transplanted tissue,
where the complement cascade lyses tissue.

Receptors
on natural killer (NK) cells recognize antigens on the cell surface of the
transplanted tissue, which releases lysosomal enzymes that destroy tissue.

Antibodies
coat the surface of the transplanted tissue to which mast cells bind and
liberate preformed chemical mediators that destroy tissue.

Question 10

Oncogenes are genes that are capable of:

Question 10 options:

Undergoing
mutation that directs the synthesis of proteins to accelerate the rate of
tissue proliferation

Directing
synthesis of proteins to regulate growth and to provide necessary replacement
of tissue

Encoding
proteins that negatively regulate the synthesis of proteins to slow or halt the
replacement of tissue

Undergoing
mutation that directs malignant tissue toward blood vessels and lymph nodes for
metastasis

Question 11

After the baroreceptor reflex is stimulated, the resulting
impulse is transmitted from the carotid artery by which sequence of events?

Question 11 options:

From
the vagus nerve to the medulla to increase parasympathetic activity and to
decrease sympathetic activity

From
the glossopharyngeal cranial nerve through the vagus nerve to the medulla to
increase sympathetic activity and to decrease parasympathetic activity

From
the glossopharyngeal cranial nerve through the vagus nerve to the medulla to
increase parasympathetic activity and to decrease sympathetic activity

From
the glossopharyngeal cranial nerve through the vagus nerve to the hypothalamus
to increase parasympathetic activity and to decrease sympathetic activity

Question 12

Regarding the endothelium, what is the difference between
healthy vessel walls and those that promote clot formation?

Question 12 options:

Inflammation
and roughening of the endothelium of the artery

Hypertrophy
and vasoconstriction of the endothelium of the artery

Excessive
clot formation and lipid accumulation in the endothelium of the artery

Evidence
of age-related changes that weaken the endothelium of the artery

Question 13

What is the expected electrocardiogram (ECG) pattern when a
thrombus in a coronary artery permanently lodges in the vessel and the
infarction extends through the myocardium from the endocardium to the
epicardium?

Question 13 options:

Prolonged
QT interval

ST
elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI)

ST
depression myocardial infarction (STDMI)

Non-ST
elevation myocardial infarction (non-STEMI)

Question 14

A patient reports sudden onset of severe chest pain that
radiates to the back and worsens with respiratory movement and when the patient
is lying down. These clinical manifestations describe:

Question 14 options:

Myocardial
infarction (MI)

Pericardial
effusion

Restrictive
pericarditis

Acute
pericarditis

Question 15

Respirations that are characterized by alternating periods
of deep and shallow breathing are a result of which respiratory mechanism?

Question 15 options:

Decreased
blood flow to the medulla oblongata

Increased
partial pressure of arterial carbon dioxide (PaCO2), decreased acid-base
balance (pH), and decreased partial pressure of arterial oxygen (PaO2)

Stimulation
of stretch or J-receptors

Fatigue
of the intercostal muscles and diaphragm

Question 16

Which cytokines activated in childhood asthma produce an
allergic response?

Question 16 options:

IL-1,
IL-2, and interferon-alpha (IFN-?)

L-8,
IL-12, and tumor necrosis factor–alpha (TNF-?)

IL-4,
IL-10, and colony-stimulating factor (CSF)

IL-4,
IL-5, and IL-13

Question 17

Which statement accurately describes childhood asthma?

Question 17 options:

An
obstructive airway disease characterized by reversible airflow obstruction,
bronchial hyperreactivity, and inflammation

A
pulmonary disease characterized by severe hypoxemia, decreased pulmonary
compliance, and diffuse densities on chest X-ray imaging

A
pulmonary disorder involving an abnormal expression of a protein, producing
viscous mucus that lines the airways, the pancreas, the sweat ducts, and the
vas deferens

An
obstructive airway disease characterized by atelectasis and increased pulmonary
resistance as a result of a surfactant deficiency

Improvement
on a trial of asthma medication

Question 18

Which statement best describes cystic fibrosis?

Question 18 options:

Obstructive
airway disease characterized by reversible airflow obstruction, bronchial
hyperreactivity, and inflammation

Respiratory
disease characterized by severe hypoxemia, decreased pulmonary compliance, and
diffuse densities on chest X-ray imaging

A
pulmonary disorder involving an abnormal expression of a protein, producing
viscous mucus that obstructs the airways, the pancreas, the sweat ducts, and
the vas deferens

A
pulmonary disorder characterized by atelectasis and increased pulmonary
resistance as a result of a surfactant deficiency

Question 19

What are the abnormalities in cytokines found in children
with cystic fibrosis?

Question 19 options:

A
deficit of IL-1 and an excess of IL-4, IL-12, and interferon-alpha (IFN-?)

A
deficit of IL-6 and an excess of IL-2, IL-8, and granulocyte colony-stimulating
factor (G-CSF)

A
deficit of IL-10 and an excess of IL-1, IL-8, and TNF-?

A
deficit of IL-3 and an excess of IL-14, IL-24, and colony-stimulating factor
(CSF)

Question 20

Examination of the throat in a child demonstrating signs and
symptoms of acute epiglottitis may contribute to which life-threatening
complication?

Question 20 options:

Retropharyngeal
abscess

Laryngospasms

Rupturing
of the tonsils

Gagging
induced aspiration

Question 21

Free radicals play a major role in the initiation and
progression of which diseases?

Question 21 options:

Cardiovascular
diseases, such as hypertension and ischemic heart disease

Renal
diseases, such as acute tubular necrosis and glomerulonephritis

Gastrointestinal
diseases, such as peptic ulcer disease and Crohn disease

Muscular
diseases, such as muscular dystrophy and fibromyalgia

Question 22

What is a consequence of plasma membrane damage to the
mitochondria?

Question 22 options:

Enzymatic digestion halts deoxyribonucleic
acid (DNA) synthesis.

Influx
of calcium ions halts adenosine triphosphate (ATP) production.

Edema
from an influx in sodium causes a reduction in ATP production.

Potassium
shifts out of the mitochondria, which destroys the infrastructure.

Question 23

In addition to osmosis, what force is involved in the
movement of water between the plasma and interstitial fluid spaces?

Question 23 options:

Oncotic
pressure

Buffering

Net
filtration

Hydrostatic
pressure

Question 24

Venous obstruction is a cause of edema because of an
increase in which pressure?

Question 24 options:

Capillary
hydrostatic

Interstitial
hydrostatic

Capillary
oncotic

Interstitial
oncotic

Question 25

At the arterial end of capillaries, fluid moves from the
intravascular space into the interstitial space because:

Question 25 options:

The
interstitial hydrostatic pressure is higher than the capillary hydrostatic
pressure.

The
capillary hydrostatic pressure is higher than the capillary oncotic pressure.

The
interstitial oncotic pressure is higher than the interstitial hydrostatic
pressure.

The
capillary oncotic pressure is lower than the interstitial hydrostatic pressure.

Question 26

Secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and the perception
of thirst are stimulated by:

Question 26 options:

A
decrease in serum sodium

An
increase in plasma osmolality

An
increase in the glomerular filtration rate

A
decrease in osmoreceptor stimulation

Question 27

Some older adults have impaired inflammation and wound
healing because of which problem?

Question 27 options:

The
circulatory system cannot adequately perfuse tissues.

Complement
and chemotaxis are deficient.

Underlying
chronic illnesses exist.

The
number of mast cells is insufficient.

Question 28

Lead poisoning affects the nervous system by:

Question 28 options:

Interfering
with the function of neurotransmitters

Inhibiting
the production of myelin around the nerves

Increasing
the resting membrane potential

Altering
the transport of potassium into the nerves

Question 29

Carbon monoxide causes tissue damage by:

Question 29 options:

Competing
with carbon dioxide so that it cannot be excreted

Binding
to hemoglobin so that it cannot carry oxygen

Destroying
the chemical bonds of hemoglobin so it cannot carry oxygen

Removing
iron from hemoglobin so it cannot carry oxygen

Question 30

Which statement is true regarding the difference between
subdural hematoma and epidural hematoma?

Question 30 options:

No
difference exists, and these terms may be correctly used interchangeably.

A
subdural hematoma occurs above the dura, whereas an epidural hematoma occurs
under the dura.

A
subdural hematoma is often the result of shaken baby syndrome, whereas an
epidural hematoma rapidly forms as a result of a skull fracture.

A
subdural hematoma usually forms from bleeding within the skull, such as an
aneurysm eruption, whereas an epidural hematoma occurs from trauma outside the
skull, such as a blunt force trauma.

Question 31

What physiologic change occurs during heat exhaustion?

Question 31 options:

Hemoconcentration
occurs because of the loss of salt and water.

Cramping
of voluntary muscles occurs as a result of salt loss.

Thermoregulation
fails because of high core temperatures.

Subcutaneous
layers are damaged because of high core temperatures.

Question 32

Hemoprotein accumulations are a result of the excessive
storage of:

Question 32 options:

Iron,
which is transferred from the cells to the bloodstream

Hemoglobin,
which is transferred from the bloodstream to the cells

Albumin,
which is transferred from the cells to the bloodstream

Amino
acids, which are transferred from the cells to the bloodstream

Question 33

Hemosiderosis results in what substance being stored in
excess as hemosiderin in cells of many organs and tissues?

Question 33 options:

Hemoglobin

Ferritin

Iron

Transferrin

Question 34

What two types of hearing loss are associated with noise?

Question 34 options:

Acoustic
trauma and noise induced

High
frequency and low frequency

High
frequency and acoustic trauma

Noise
induced and low frequency

Question 35

What type of necrosis results from ischemia of neurons and
glial cells?

Question 35 options:

Coagulative

Liquefactive

Caseous

Gangrene

Question 36

During cell injury caused by hypoxia, sodium and water move
into the cell because:

Question 36 options:

Potassium
moves out of the cell, and potassium and sodium are inversely related.

The
pump that transports sodium out of the cell cannot function because of a
decrease in adenosine triphosphate (ATP) levels.

The
osmotic pressure is increased, which pulls additional sodium across the cell
membrane.

Oxygen
is not available to bind with sodium to maintain it outside of the cell.

Question 37

In decompression sickness, emboli are formed by bubbles of:

Question 37 options:

Oxygen

Nitrogen

Carbon
monoxide

Hydrogen

Question 38

What is an example of compensatory hyperplasia?

Question 38 options:

Hepatic
cells increase cell division after part of the liver is excised.

Skeletal
muscle cells atrophy as a result of paralysis.

The
heart muscle enlarges as a result of hypertension.

The
size of the uterus increases during pregnancy.

Question 39

Current research has determined that chemical-induced
cellular injury:

Question 39 options:

Affects
the permeability of the plasma membrane

Is
often the result of the damage caused by reactive free radicals

Is
rarely influenced by lipid peroxidation

Seldom
involves the cell’s organelles

Question 40

What is the inflammatory effect of nitric oxide?

Question 40 options:

It
increases capillary permeability and causes pain.

It
increases neutrophil chemotaxis and platelet aggregation.

It
causes smooth muscle contraction and fever.

It
decreases mast cell function and decreases platelet aggregation.

A Sample Answer For the Assignment: NSG 5003 Mid-term Exam

Title: NSG 5003 Mid-term Exam

NSG 5003 Mid-term Exam Grading Rubric

Performance Category	100% or highest level of performance 100% 16 points	Very good or high level of performance 88% 14 points	Acceptable level of performance 81% 13 points	Inadequate demonstration of expectations 68% 11 points	Deficient level of performance 56% 9 points	Failing level of performance 55% or less 0 points
Total Points Possible= 50	16 Points	14 Points	13 Points	11 Points	9 Points	0 Points
Scholarliness Demonstrates achievement of scholarly inquiry for professional and academic topics.	Presentation of information was exceptional and included all of the following elements: Provides evidence of scholarly inquiry relevant to required TD topic(s). Presents specific information from scholarly sources to develop a comprehensive presentation of facts. Uses at least one outside scholarly reference that is relevant, less than 5 years old (use of older references requires instructor permission) and reliable for the required topic.* Uses in-text citation and full reference at end of posting when presenting another person’s thoughts as quotes or paraphrase of information.	Presentation of information was good, but was superficial in places and included all of the following elements: Provides evidence of scholarly inquiry relevant to required TD topic(s). Presents specific information from scholarly sources to develop a comprehensive presentation of facts. Uses at least one outside scholarly reference that is relevant, less than 5 years old (use of older references requires instructor permission) and reliable for the required topic.* Uses in-text citation and full reference at end of posting when presenting another person’s thoughts as quotes or paraphrase of information.	Presentation of information was minimally demonstrated in all of the following elements: Provides evidence of scholarly inquiry relevant to required TD topic(s). Presents specific information from scholarly sources to develop a comprehensive presentation of facts. Uses at least one outside scholarly reference that is relevant, less than 5 years old (use of older references requires instructor permission) and reliable for the required topic.* Uses in-text citation and full reference at end of posting when presenting another person’s thoughts as quotes or paraphrase of information.	Presentation of information is unsatisfactory in one of the following elements: Provides evidence of scholarly inquiry relevant to required TD topic(s). Presents specific information from scholarly sources to develop a comprehensive presentation of facts. Uses at least one outside scholarly reference that is relevant, less than 5 years old (use of older references requires instructor permission) and reliable for the required topic.* Uses in-text citation and full reference at end of posting when presenting another person’s thoughts as quotes or paraphrase of information.	Presentation of information is unsatisfactory in two of the following elements: Provides evidence of scholarly inquiry relevant to required TD topic(s). Presents specific information from scholarly sources to develop a comprehensive presentation of facts. Uses at least one outside scholarly reference that is relevant, less than 5 years old (use of older references requires instructor permission) and reliable for the required topic.* Uses in-text citation and full reference at end of posting when presenting another person’s thoughts as quotes or paraphrase of information.	Presentation of information is unsatisfactory in three or more of the following elements Provides evidence of scholarly inquiry relevant to required TD topic(s). Presents specific information from scholarly sources to develop a comprehensive presentation of facts. Uses at least one outside scholarly reference that is relevant, less than 5 years old (use of older references requires instructor permission) and reliable for the required topic.* Uses in-text citation and full reference at end of posting when presenting another person’s thoughts as quotes or paraphrase of information
	16 Points	14 Points	13 Points	11 Points	9 Points	0 Points
Application of Course Knowledge Demonstrate the ability to analyze and apply principles, knowledge and information learned in the outside readings and relate them to real-life professional situations	Presentation of information was exceptional and included all of the following elements: Applies principles, knowledge and information from scholarly resources to the required topic. Applies facts, principles or concepts learned from scholarly resources to a professional experience. Application of information is comprehensive and specific to the required topic.	Presentation of information was good, but was superficial in places and included all of the following elements: Applies principles, knowledge and information from scholarly resources to the required topic. Applies facts, principles or concepts learned from scholarly resources to a professional experience. Application of information is comprehensive and specific to the required topic.	Presentation of information was minimally demonstrated in the all of the following elements: Applies principles, knowledge and information from scholarly resources to the required topic. Applies facts, principles or concepts learned from scholarly resources to a professional experience. Application of information is comprehensive and specific to the required topic.	Presentation of information is unsatisfactory in one of the following elements: Applies principles, knowledge and information from scholarly resources to the required topic. Applies facts, principles or concepts learned from and scholarly resources to a professional experience. Application of information is comprehensive and specific to the required topic.	Presentation of information is unsatisfactory in two of the following elements: Applies principles, knowledge and information from scholarly resources to the required topic. Applies facts, principles or concepts learned from scholarly resources to a professional experience. Application of information is comprehensive and specific to the required topic.	Presentation of information is unsatisfactory in three of the following elements Applies principles, knowledge and information and scholarly resources to the required topic. Applies facts, principles or concepts learned scholarly resources to a professional experience. Application of information is comprehensive and specific to the required topic.
	10 Points	9 Points			6 Points	0 Points
Interactive Dialogue Initial post should be a minimum of 300 words (references do not count toward word count) The peer and instructor responses must be a minimum of 150 words each (references do not count toward word count) Responses are substantive and relate to the topic.	Demonstrated all of the following: Initial post must be a minimum of 300 words. The peer and instructor responses must be a minimum of 150 words each. Responses are substantive Responses are related to the topic of discussion.	Demonstrated 3 of the following: Initial post must be a minimum of 300 words. The peer and instructor responses must be a minimum of 150 words each. Responses are substantive Responses are related to the topic of discussion.			Demonstrated 2 of the following: Initial post must be a minimum of 300 words. The peer and instructor responses must be a minimum of 150 words each. Responses are substantive Responses are related to the topic of discussion.	Demonstrated 1 or less of the following: Initial post must be a minimum of 300 words. The peer and instructor responses must be a minimum of 150 words each. Responses are substantive Responses are related to the topic of discussion.
	8 Points	7 Points	6 Points	5 Points	4 Points	0 Points
Grammar, Syntax, APA Points deducted for improper grammar, syntax and APA style of writing. The source of information is the APA Manual 6th Edition Error is defined to be a unique APA error. Same type of error is only counted as one error.	The following was present: 0-3 errors in APA format AND Responses have 0-3 grammatical, spelling or punctuation errors AND Writing style is generally clear, focused on topic,and facilitates communication.	The following was present: 4-6 errors in APA format. AND/OR Responses have 4-5 grammatical, spelling or punctuation errors AND/OR Writing style is somewhat focused on topic.	The following was present: 7-9 errors in APA format. AND/OR Responses have 6-7 grammatical, spelling or punctuation errors AND/OR Writing style is slightly focused on topic making discussion difficult to understand.	The following was present: 10- 12 errors in APA format AND/OR Responses have 8-9 grammatical, spelling and punctuation errors AND/OR Writing style is not focused on topic, making discussion difficult to understand.	The following was present: 13 – 15 errors in APA format AND/OR Responses have 8-10 grammatical, spelling or punctuation errors AND/OR Writing style is not focused on topic, making discussion difficult to understand. AND/OR The student continues to make repeated mistakes in any of the above areas after written correction by the instructor.	The following was present: 16 to greater errors in APA format. AND/OR Responses have more than 10 grammatical, spelling or punctuation errors. AND/OR Writing style does not facilitate communication
	0 Points Deducted					5 Points Lost
Participation Requirements	Demonstrated the following: Initial, peer, and faculty postings were made on 3 separate days					Failed to demonstrate the following: Initial, peer, and faculty postings were made on 3 separate days
	0 Points Lost					5 Points Lost
Due Date Requirements	Demonstrated all of the following: The initial posting to the graded threaded discussion topic is posted within the course no later than Wednesday, 11:59 pm MT. A minimum of one peer and one instructor responses are to be posted within the course no later than Sunday, 11:59 pm MT.					Demonstrates one or less of the following. The initial posting to the graded threaded discussion topic is posted within the course no later than Wednesday, 11:59 pm MT. A minimum of one peer and one instructor responses are to be posted within the course no later than Sunday, 11:59 pm MT.